Answer:
No!
Explaination:
if you think of it as y=f(x)
if you think of it as y=f(x)x²+y²=a
if you think of it as y=f(x)x²+y²=aAs y= ±√(a-x²) , for -a<x<+a
if you think of it as y=f(x)x²+y²=aAs y= ±√(a-x²) , for -a<x<+aAs you can see there two values in the codomain y that maps to a single value in the domain x. Example when x=0, y =±a.
